Equity: Excess Earnings Method - Numerator to have growth?

Reading 39 - Private Company Valuation - Excess Earnings Method

As per the steps (precise - step-6 on page-558) given in the reading - the numerator should have GROWTH multiplied with Residual Income divided by (r-g).

Specifically, the formula is -

Value of intangible asset = (Residual Income * g) / (r-g)

HOWEVER, in the EOC question 15 solution, GROWTH is NOT considered in the numerator!

The value of intangible asset is computed as -

Residual Income / (r-g)

Which one is correct?

Thanks in advance!

in Q15, the normalized earnings provided are a projection of the forecasted year ahead value, which is what you are looking for (and the practical affect of growing current year normalized earnings).

The numbers are a PROJECTION for following year (so g is already implied). This is btw. a common trap in DDM, FCFE, FCFF etc. as well! Always watch out for the reference year.

When normalized earnings are provided, we still deduct cost of equity only from those earnings to get Residual Income… correct?

or we deduct WACC* cost of total capital?