I 'm little confused with the total return equity swap
if we suppose that there is no dividends and there is only capital appreciation, then how will the investor pay his leg of the swap or precisely the difference between his total return and the LIBOR
one main objective of managing a concentrated single-asset position is to get liquidity but this swap consume it
not entirely sure of the question but you would be posting collateral for your swap & they usually mark to market at specified intervals so you would be posting cash collateral along the way