equity portfolio mgmt reading 27 EOC question no 11 pg 279

The solution says that the total active risk is greater than 6% because the long short manager would be benchmarked to the russell 1000 rather than his normal benchmark. However in the question normal benchmark is mentioned as cash with russell 1000 overlay. Doesnt this mean his normal benchmark is russell 1000 itself? Why does the solution say that the long short manager is not benchmarked against his normal benchmark?



I had this same question. There was no resolution. I am firmly convined they effed up and it is a typo despite it not being in the errata.