Hello, could someone please confirm if my understanding is correct regarding the below:
Is it correct to say that Firm Value which is FCFF(1+g) / (WACC - g) is the same exact thing as Enterprise Value which is the Market Value of all invested capital (equity, preferred stock, debt) less cash, cash equivalents and short term investments. I get the idea that they are the same thing, but the textbook makes no specific mention to their equivalence.
To justify an EV / EBITDA multiple, the text mentions that the fundamentals drivers of this ratio are WACC, expected sustainable growth in FCFF, and ROIC. It doesnt show the derivation but I asumme it is based on the Firm Value formula: FCFF (1+g) / (WACC - g). Assuming firm value and enterprise value are the same concept, we can divide bother sides by EBITDA to get an expression for EV / EBITDA.
EV / EBITDA = (FCFF / EBITDA)(1+g) / (WACC - g). I am not sure of the role played by ROIC in this foumula, I assume it has something to do with the ratio of FCFF / EBITDA, which is the portion of pre-interest earnings that is availble for distribution to all providers of capital. If ROIC increases, then the portion of ROIC that is FCFF increases which increases EV / EBITDA.
1.) They are the same thing to the extent that the working capital requirement reflected in your Free cash flows exclude cash. If cash is included in working capital, you get MVIC (not EV), bc this implies that cash is being captured in the cash flows; if cash is included, it can’t be EV. There are two indications of firm value: MVIC and EV (MVIC less cash). They both indicate firm value. One is with and the other is without cash. The reason the distinction is made is becuase an acquirer will often not pay for the cash, you’re essentially just swapping cash. If a company’s operating value is worth $95mm and it has $5mm in excess cash on the balance sheet, the total company value is $100mm. A buyer could pay $100mm, and keep the excess cash to with what he pleases. Or, he could pay $95mm and let the buyer take the excess cash. EV is the latter case bc why would you pay cash to buy cash. At the end of the day though, it’s six one way, half dozen the other. Doesn’t matter, you’re paying and receiving the same thing at the end of the day.
2.) Bro, you’re way overcooking with the second question. No need to go through that mental exercise. By all means, if it works for you (thinking through it like that), then go with it. But if the text didn’t bother to show, let alone describe, in depth the derivation (as it did for the others), then I wouldn’t waste my time.
Nevertheless, just know that they all boil down to growth and risk for the most part. Profitability/return is also key to understanding multiples. ROIC, the way you’re thinking about it, would be reflected in the FCFF. Your FCFF would reflect the return your operations are generating. But again, while I applaud your appetite for thought, I say you’ve got it, keep going.
Can I check why & when do we need to add Cash & S-T investments in this case to derive equity value?
There is a question earlier in the same mock paper (Zenith ThermoPlastics) qn 2 where the valuation of firm is derived using projected FCFF, which thus equals to EV, but no cash is added to derive equity value.
saurabhm , thanks alot. my purpose of stating FCFF discounted at WACC should give EV, yet the answer did not entail adding cash to derive the equity value after deducting for debt. On the other hand, other qn within the same paper highlights that once we have the value of EV, we should add cash, before deducting debt to derive the equity value. So, when should we add cash…
where it is not necessary to deduct cash in deriving equity
Terminal value at start of 2013 3,723/(1.105)4 2,497 Enterprise value 3,050 Less debt after acquisition 650 Maximum value of equity 2,400 Maximum price per share (60 million shares) 2,400/60 = $40
I did not look at the solution and worked out the problem and got the answer.
The issue it seems is that curriculum is using EV and value of firm interchangeably
The value of the firm here is simply the present value of FCFF ( which curriculum writes as EV which would be true if the company does not have any cash), you reduce the debt and that gives you the equity.
In the Exam if I get similar kind of problems with FCFF, the PV of FCFF will give me the value of the firm and I wouldnt care about the cash, I will simply deduct debt to get market value of equity