Could anyone tell me the following questions, thank you in advance

- if the EVA which is derived and developed from the RI formula, so in which cases of wd and we must these two be the same. Assume that the wd = 0 to make these two formula will make the EVA increase by tax (according to Miller propositions but hardly to find a company exists without debt. So what are the assumptions to make these two formulas equal?
- In curriculum, they said that the MVA is also relation to the Residual incomes why these three formulas are quite different only the BV of total capital the same, so why these three formulas can relevant?
- Do MVA only use for the liquidated company?