Hi guys,
I have a question regarding the FCFF from EBITDA when EBITDA is already negative.
The conventional formula for FCFF equals
FCFF= EBITDA(1-tax rate) - Depr(tax rate)-FCInv-Change in WC
If EBITDA is already negative my assumption is that the formula changes as no taxes are paid
FCFF=EBITDA-FCInv-Change in WC
Is this logic correct? What are your views?
Best regards…
sooraj
#2
Hi TheHans,
The logic looks fine to me too.
Cheers.
apr9th
#3
we should use original formula and use 0 for tax. But if our task is valuation, I think there are some better options.
1, simpliest, we don’t use fcff
2, use normalize version of fcff
3, make cash flow projection until fcff turns positive.
Cheers mates. It was not for valuation purposes. So it works. Thanx
ov25
#5
I don’t think the formula changes… It simply means there may be a neg cash flow
CMLSML
#6
Should be plus dep(tax rate)