I was reviewing my notes, and I got confused between these two concepts. I have that CAPEX = Capital used to buy fixed assets - Capital received from selling fixed assets.
Now, FCInv is also equal to cash spent on fixed assets - cash received from selling fixed assets.
Aren’t these two terms the same thing?
Moreover, I googled analystforum, and I found that FCInv = Capex - proceed from sales. Now, I am completely lost.
Can someone please guide me using an example?