Feb 2024 CFA Boston mock 1 session 2, set 9, question 4 - why is opinion 1 correct?

Connell then queries Twimbly on the merits of capture ratios and drawdowns in evaluating manager risk. Twimbly offers the following two opinions:
Opinion 1: Observing drawdowns is an excellent way to evaluate a manager’s operational due diligence procedures.
Opinion 2: The degree of a manager’s active share is the best way to assess the firm’s risk management policies.

  1. Which of Twimbly’s opinions regarding indicators of an asset manager’s approach to risk management is(are) least likely correct?
    A. Opinion 1 only
    B. Opinion 2 only
    C. Opinion 1 and Opinion 2

Answer. B
LOS: Volume 5, Learning Module 4, Describe uses of the upside capture ratio, downside capture ratio, maximum drawdown, drawdown duration, and up/down capture in evaluating managers.
Twimbly’s observation in Opinion 2 is incorrect. Active share indicates the degree to which a manager’s portfolio weights differ from those of the benchmark constituents. It is not, in and of itself, a catch-all metric for a manager’s risk management policies; the assessment involves numerous factors.
Reference: 2024, Investment Manager Selection, L3, Volume 5, Learning Module 4, Section 5, Capture Ratios and Drawdowns in Manager Evaluation, pp. 279-283.

The operational due diligence is part of qualitative analysis while drawdowns is a quantitative measurement. Thus, Option 1 is incorrect.

ok so the solution is wrong, thanks