Having trouble understanding this question from Kaplan study materials.
"Comment 1:
An investor having a long position in a call option on a bond has the same position as if he is long an interest rate floor."
The answer is that this is correct. Why is a call on a bond the same position as a long interest rate floor? I understand that they move in the same direction (if rates drop below the floor/bond prices rise above the strike the positions are in the money), but are they equivalent positions (same exact cash flows), or just directionally the same?
Thanks!