Regarding Fixed income, I have some troubles to make sense of different things I know.
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I know that (Z-spread + spot rate across different) equalize future Cash Flows and the market price.
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I know the YTM is the discount rate that equalize future future Cash Flows and the market price.
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To me it looks like 1) and 2) means that YTM = spot rate + Z-spread. Is it right?
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I also know that the YTM is the weithed avergae of the spot rates.
But it seems that 4) contradict with 3) since we don’t need the Z-spread but only the spot rate to compute the YTM.
Could somebody please shun light on what is a conundrum for me. I guess 3) is wrong but I don’t understand why.