Forward contract clarity

From Kaplan:

Explanation
Either a decrease in benefits or an increase in costs of holding the underlying asset would increase the no-arbitrage price of a forward contract.

So theoretically the price of the forward contract increases if costs increase or benefits go down? Is this the market value after initiation of the contract?

This is the price: the agreed forward price when you enter into the contract.

A change in the benefits or costs will also affect the value (later).

Why would an increase in costs make the “value” of a contract become greater?

They’ll affect the spot price, which affects the value.

That tip was helpful.