forward conversion with options avoids counterparty risk why

as titled

Not sure, are the options purchased from the exchange ?

Because the strategy involves both call option and put option locked at the same exercise price, effectively hedging the position. Therefore, there is no counterparty risk.

This doesn’t logically follow.

Unless, of course, they’re exchange-traded options.

@ Magician

Thanks. Got confused with counterparty risk and riskless position

@ OP

Maybe someone else can provide answer…

I suspect that the answer is that you’re assuming exchange-traded options.

The text doesnt specify exchange-traded options. As a matter of fact, it instead implicate dealers, so it is more likely to have counterparty risk, am i correct?

In that case, of course.