If I see a question like this one on the exam I’ll probably skip over it and do it last. Doing it the way specified in the answers not only takes a while to do but theres a high chance of making a calculator error.
For questions like these sometimes you need to halve the rates and sometimes you don’t. Anyone know the reason? I’m guessing they’re always quoted at BEY and we’re supposed to know that. I think these questions class as: Leave, come back and spend some time on them at the end’.
^I’m pretty sure for forward rates you divide by 2, don’t discount them, but instead multiply by each prior forward rate, i.e. coupon 1 divided by (1+period 1 forward/2), coupon 2 divided by [(1+period 1 forward/2)*(1+period 2 forward/2)]… and so on
And for spot rates you just discount each coupon by 1 + the corresponding spot rate
You always adjust BOTH spot and forward rates to semiannual basis (divide by 2) whenever they are given in BEY form. When they are given in a 1-year rate form, you keep the rates as is.