Hello,
I wanted some help on figuring out what the curriculum is trying to explain with the answer for problem (EOC) #17, reading 16.
Why is it than when the par value of a Held to maturity security is < than the initial cost, the interest income is lower.
Interest income is dependent on the previous period amortized cost and effective rate, I don’t see the relationship.
I understand that interest received - interest income = amortization premium (if +), but how is the interest income affected when par value is less?
Thanks.