FRM Part 2 - VaR explanation

FRM
#1

Hi there, I find difficulty understanding this question from Schweser.
Could someone help me to explain why the answer is D? I think it is A :frowning:

Assume the profit/loss distribution for XYZ is normally distributed with an annual mean of $20 million and a standard deviation of $10 million. The 5% VaR is calculated and interpreted as which of the following statements?

A. 5% probability of losses of at least $3.50 million.
B. 5% probability of earnings of at least $3.50 million.
C. 95% probability of losses of at least $3.50 million.
D. 95% probability of earnings of at least $3.50 million.

Many thanks,

#2

It’s D.
The 5th percentile of the normal distribution for the mean/s.d. given is +3.5M. So there is a 5% probability the profit is less than $3.5M (or possibly a loss) and a 95% probability that the profit is greater than $3.5M.

For A to be correct, the 5th percentile would need to be -3.5M rather than +3.5M.