# FSA

shares= 500000 begging stock price= \$40 ending price= \$60 average price= \$50 warrants 120000 warrant holders can buy 1 share at \$45 how many shares shd be used for diluted earnings per share? a. 488,000 b. 500000 c. 508000 d. 512000

I hope its D

D. 512,000: 120,000*(50-45)/50

or, 120,000*45=5,400,000 revenue from the exercise, that can buy in the market 5,400,000/50=108,000 shares, but there are a total of 120,000 to be distributed to warant holders, so 120,000-108,000=12,000 more shares should be issued, thatâ€™s a total of 512,000

D fo shizzle

D. map1 spelled it out perfectly.

what kind of formula you guys used for this? Thanks

(Average market price-warrant price)/(Average market price) * # of warrants

Well, you migh have a conversion different than 1:1, and the average price of the stock in the market might be lower than the warrant exercise price, the formula that I use is: Additional shares = MAX (0, (average price of stock - exercise price)/average price of stock)*# of shares issued following exercise It could be 0 when the average price of stock < stock exercise price

Its called the treasury method. But used ONLY when the warrants are dilutive.

Thank you