Below from FinQuiz R27 note…could someone help me understand this? Why future/ forward is fully leverage but option isn’t?
Many organizations are not permitted to use futures or forwards because they represent fully leveraged positions. These firms can use options, which are not fully leveraged.
I would suspect it’s because of the up front premium paid for the option contracts whereas the futures are assumed to be collateralized and forwards are otc with a notional principal and nothing paid up front. There’s probably a better answer out there though.