So I understand that if the asset is + correlated with interest rates that that the long would prefer a futures contract and that if they assets are - correlated with interests rates the long would prefer a FWD contact… but what about if they are going short? is it reversed?
Also does this concept seems to be that it would create backwardation/contago for its respective market as more people want to hold that contact? is that the case?
Let me know, any inight is