I am confused by the answers given by the CFA Text, Question 4(D), R60.
An investor doesn’t yet own the asset, intend to buy the asset (current price $225), so he long the forward, with forward price of $235.69 (from answer in A).
If asset price at T is $190, why is there a gain on assets? The investor has commited to buy the asset at $225 and the asset price drops to $190. Isn’t that a loss as due its commitment, he needs to buy at higher price?
Please enlighten me. Thanks a lot.