If I am not mistaken, the negative income is greater than the substitution effect, so the net result should be a decrease in consumption. The explanation I am reading says: "the negative income effect of a price decrease outweighs the positive substitution effect, so that a decrease (increase) in the good’s price has a net result of decreasing (increasing) the quantity consumed."
I understand (I think) how a decrease in price has an effect on quantity connsumed - the more free income a person has, they less likely they are to spend it (after the substitution effect is taken into account) on a less desireable good, but why would an increase in price lead to an increase in consumption? That sounds more like the charicteristic of a Veblen good, but with a Veblen good you’re often spending more for a label or the perception of quality/wealth/status, etc. What is the deal here?