As GIPS changes take place, for instance in 2010 valuing portfolios upon large cash flows, then in this case do you only adopt changes in 2010 only show changes performance 2010 onwards or is it retro-actively restated? If not retroactive and you are showing 10 years of data, are they are not apples and oranges?
i cant recall that CFA mentions it anywhere in GIPS section that changes will be applied retro-actively. also there were a few other places in GIPS material where it specifically states that changes willl not be made retroactively. so i assume the same should apply here as well.
GIPS changes are not retroactive.