An investor allocates $10 million at the beginning of the year to a hedge fund charging a management fee of 2% and an incentive fee of 20% with a 6%(hard) hurdle rate. At year end the value of the investment is $11.8 million. The incentive fee is calculated net of the management fee and the management fee is based on the yearend value. The net of fees return the investor earned is closest to:
A.) 13.24%
B.) 13.93%
C.) 13.71%
I chose A, and the answer explanation gave 13.24% as the answer when they walked through how to calculate it. Am I correct and this is just an error on their end?
I get 13.71% … how did you derive your answer? 11,800,000 * 0.02 = $236,000 MER 11,564,000 - 10,000,000 = 1,564,000 1,564,000/10,000,000 = 15.64% 15.64% - 6% = 9.64% 9.64% * 0.2 = 1.928% 15.64% - 1.928% = 13.712% Is net of managment fee the same as independant of management fee or post managment fee?
That came across wrong, I was also asking a question not trying to smugly answer yours. Can someone confirm the correct answer as I have seen it both ways in topic tests and mock exams.