There is an example in Volume 5 page 400 on calculating present value of bond cash flows in between coupon dates. There are 78 days between the settlement date and next coupon payment date, and there are 182 days in the coupon period, so our period N becomes 0.4286 (=78/182). The sum of each cash flow shows a present value of $106,8192 which is what I came up with as well on my BA Plus II. However, when I use the shortcut to calculating the PV, that is , when I add the annuity of coupon payments to the PV of the maturity value, I am getting a different amount than above. This what I do: N = 4.4286 (adjusted down from 5 semi-annual coupon payments remaining) I/Y = 4% (8% is the annual discount) PMT = $5.00, (annual coupon rate is 10%) FV = $100, payment at maturity PV = 103,9861 which is different from the $106,8192 from the text book. Could you advise what I am doing wrong? Thank you so much,
Not sure you would be interested. I would use the BOND worksheet to get to this: See http://www.analystforum.com/phorums/read.php?11,843153,843976#msg-843976 where I have mentioned the workings.