For an investment with negatively skewed returns, the *most appropriate* of the following risk measures is:

A) Sortino ratio. B) value at risk. C) shortfall risk

For me this one is the VaR, not the Sortino, Qbank tells me I am wrong though. Can someone explain this one?

I don’t see that the Sortino ratio is any more *appropriate* than value at risk.

What’s their explanation?

well sortino measures downside deviation… which may be most appropriate for negatively skewed returns rather than a size of a possible decline at a certain significance level