When translating share capital of the subsidiary with historical rate my understanding was we use the rate when the capital was issued.
In practice questions I see we use the rate when the mother company acquired the subsidiary. I would have thought these two are not the same.
Is this OK, is there anything I miss?
If you are translating financial statements of the subsidiaries in order to consolidate them to the Parent Financial Statements, then yeah, the subsidiaries are owned by the parent since purchased. What if one of the subsidiaries last equity issue was on 1920 (far before the acquisition), are you going to use the 1920 exchange rate for translation? Not much sense on this, isn’t it?
Ha-ha, the 1920 example helped me a lot. Thanks.