Yeah I also find that strange, since I also have seen CFAI use Method 1 numerous times.
My understanding of the difference is that Method 1 seems to account for inflation by converting the return to a real rate, meanwhile Method 2 seems to account for inflation by converting the discount rate to a nominal rate.
I am curious when to assume one versus the other, or if for exam purposes we should just assume Method 2, since that is the “correct” method according to S2000.