Can someone explain to me why impairment of goodwill is a cash inflow under operating activities? It is obviously a non-cash expense, but why is it an inflow under ops?
Thanks,
Can someone explain to me why impairment of goodwill is a cash inflow under operating activities? It is obviously a non-cash expense, but why is it an inflow under ops?
Thanks,
Under the indirect method for CFO, noncash expenses are added to net income to arrive at CFO.