Could someone help me understand how this is calculated?
Assume the yields to maturity on four-year and five-year zero-coupon bonds are 4.67% and 5.35%, respectively, stated on a semiannual bond basis. The “4y1y” implied forward rate is?
The YTM of the zeros are the respective spot rates for 4 and 5 years:
SR4=4.67% SR5=5.35% You are looking for the 1 year forward rate 4 years from now (1FR4) which is the rate between the spot rate for year 4 and year 5. (Draw a timeline if this is not clear!)
Note that the yields are stated on a semmiannual basis. You need to divide them by 2 and instead of taking annual periods you need to take semiannual periods:
I didn’t calculate it at all (or even approximate it) before stating my conclusion.
I based it on the fact that they had one answer ( C ) which was a half-year rate (for those who forgot to double it to get an annual rate); I figured that the correct answer was twice that rate, which was answer B.
I’d never heard it called the banana method before today, but it’s a pretty good approximation, and easy to do. I discuss it in the article I cited above.