Implied PE question from Kaplan Vol 2 exam 2 question 30

Question 30 about the Implied P/E. I totally understand what the answer states by apllying the FX rate to the associate marke cap (32,330*30%*0.7) and finish calculating the rest of the PE.

However, when I convert the Delicious’s market cap and Net Income to the Associate’s currency, I think the answer does not match. Can someone help explain?

Market Cap (Delicisou) EURO 97,525 (Associate) $32,330

Currenct Exchange Rate (euro per $) 0.7

Average exchange rate (euro per $) 0.73

Income from assciate 354 (euro)

Net income 6501 euro

Answer states: Implied PE = (97525-32330*30%\ *0.7 )/(6501-354)= 14.8

My way of calculating: Implied PE= (97525/ 0.70 -32330*30)/(6501-354)/ 0.73 = 15.38

because delicious is in euros my man so you gotta subtract euros from euros you know what im sayin?