Income risk is important for comparable assured income streams, which can be more stable and dependable in a portfolio with long maturities.
Apparently from a mock exam this statement is true.
Can someone explain why?
Income risk is important for comparable assured income streams, which can be more stable and dependable in a portfolio with long maturities.
Apparently from a mock exam this statement is true.
Can someone explain why?
I have no idea what they think they mean by that.
First of all, “assured” should be “ensured”; but that’s the least of the author’s worries.
I’d imagine that they’re trying to say that if you have an ensured income stream for a long period, your portfolio is more stable than if you have an ensured income stream for a short period. It would be nice if they would say as much.