Can some clever guy explain why we have to use this formula to calculate incremental return: rIS=∑i=1A∑j=1Mwi×wij×(rBij−rCi) to compute incremental return % for “asset category” instead of just taking the incremental gain/loss movement in $/ and divide by opening balance. For example the table below is from Exhibit 6 Reading 26. I would have computed the “asset category” incremental return as 6,272,658/ 187,944,879 = 3.34%; yet the incremental return per CFAI is 3.36%. The difference appears small but in other questions, the difference can be quite huge. The same applies to working out all the incremental returns eg investment Managers or Value of Active Management category.
And could you explain the formulas for Incremental Return Contribution for Asset category; Benchmarks; Investment managers; Allocation effects etc --and whats the intuition of these.