I dont get why in the book, they calculate after tax income - exp / inv port then divide by 1-t … and in the sample exam, they get the pretax expense, then (pretax income - pretax expense) / port … i seem to get different answers.
any ideas?
I dont get why in the book, they calculate after tax income - exp / inv port then divide by 1-t … and in the sample exam, they get the pretax expense, then (pretax income - pretax expense) / port … i seem to get different answers.
any ideas?
Nevermind guys, works fine now guess i’d better get after tax and then / by 1-t. seems to be easier.