Guys, I have a question for anyone that has done the Practice Exam 2 - AM Book 1 Schweser.
Question 45.
Based on the portfolio manager’s estimates of residual risk and residual return, the annualized valued added for portfolio IMI-KAY is closest to:
A) 0.35%. B) 0.88%. C) 1.40%.
Your answer: C was correct!
annual α = (0.5) × 4 = 2%; annual ω = (1) × = 2% VA = α − (λ × ω2) = 2% − (0.15 × 22) = 1.4%
Alternatively, quarterly VA = 0.5 − (0.15 × 12 = 0.35% annual VA = quarterly VA × 4 = 0.35% × 4 = 1.4%C
Where does this ω = (1) × come from ?
Why the annual w isn`t 4% ? The question says: The portfolio manager anticipates that the portfolio will generate QUARTERLY residual return of 0,5% with a residual risk of 1%.