Intercorporate taxonomy, review

Less than 20% (with no influence —> classify as HtM, AfS, or HfT, and pay attention to how you account for interest/dividend and G/L. Between 20%-50% (with influence) ----> use equity method (only?) Joint Ventures ----> proportionate consolidation (IFRS), or Equity Method (U.S.). If > 50% --------> use acquisition method (only?), some in the past used pooling, so you need to be aware of its impact. In acquisition, IFRS records assets+liabilities at FV. U.S., only acquired stuff at FV. If pooling was used, then assets+liabilities recorded at V. If having control over SPE, use consolidation…if no control (?) Agree or disagree, please.

Is full consolidation same as 100% proportionate consolidation?

“In acquisition, IFRS records assets+liabilities at FV. U.S., only acquired stuff at FV.” Is this correct?

For SPE issues IFRS: You will need to have control to consolidate. Proper guidelines are not given. Indicators of control: SPE activities are conducted for the benefit of sponsoring entity It has decision making powers to obtain benefits It is able to absorb risk and rewards of SPE It has residual interest in SPE GAAP: Must consolidate if primary beneficiary. Primary beneficiary is one who absorbs major losses, receives major returns or both. If one entity takes major losses and other entity takes major returns, then entity absorbing major losses must consolidate. “Is full consolidation same as 100% proportionate consolidation?” Well then it wouldn’t remain proportionate.

Please confirm. Bought 30% of company with net assets BV = $1.2M, FV=$1.5M, and paid $500k. Goodwill under equity method is $500k - 0.30*$1.2M = $140k If you bought 90% of company, then Goodwill under acquisition method = $1.5M-$1.2M $300k. Is this correct?

Correction: Bought 90% of company with net assets BV = $1.2M, FV=$1.5M, but FV at acquisition date = $1.6M, and paid $500k. Goodwill under acquisition method = $1.6M-$1.5M = $100k. This is similar to Example 9, page 44 of FRA, where they ignored the 90% acquisition! Can someone summarize how you account for goodwill?

Dreary Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > Please confirm. > > Bought 30% of company with net assets BV = $1.2M, > FV=$1.5M, and paid $500k. > > Goodwill under equity method is $500k - 0.30*$1.2M > = $140k > > If you bought 90% of company, then Goodwill under > acquisition method = $1.5M-$1.2M $300k. > > Is this correct? Goodwill under equity method is as follows: Purchase price = 500k Acquired equity = 120 x 0.3 = 360k Excess purchase price = 140k (500-360) Attributable to other assets = (1.5-1.2)x0.30 = 90k Goodwill = 140-90 = 50k Goodwill under acquisition. Under Partial Goodwill You will need to how much the company was purchased for its share of 90% Under Full Goodwill You will need to know what is the fair market value of the subsidiary

Dreary Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > Correction: > > Bought 90% of company with net assets BV = $1.2M, > FV=$1.5M, but FV at acquisition date = $1.6M, and > paid $500k. > > Goodwill under acquisition method = $1.6M-$1.5M = > $100k. > > This is similar to Example 9, page 44 of FRA, > where they ignored the 90% acquisition! > Can someone summarize how you account for > goodwill? Goodwill under acquisition. Under Partial Goodwill 500k - 0.90 x 1.5 = 50k Under Full Goodwill 1.6-1.5 = 100k

Finally I got a hold of this: Subsidiary’s market value (market cap for example) MV(sub) = $900M. FV (net assets) = $600M. BV (net assets) =$500M. Parent buys 90% of sub and pays $810M (90% of MV(sub). Full goodwill: MV(sub) - FV(sub) = $900M - $600M = $300M. Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x MV(sub) = 10% x $900M = $90M. Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% x [FV(sub) - BV(sub)] = $810M -0.90 ($100M) = $72M. Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x FV(sub) = 10% x $600M = $60M.

Folks, this is work in progress, sorry. Correction to partial goodwill: Finally I got a hold of this: Subsidiary’s market value (market cap for example) MV(sub) = $900M. FV (net assets) = $600M. BV (net assets) =$500M. Parent buys 90% of sub and pays $810M (90% of MV(sub). Full goodwill: MV(sub) - FV(sub) = $900M - $600M = $300M. Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x MV(sub) = 10% x $900M = $90M. Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% x BV(sub) - 90% x [FV(sub) - BV(sub)] = $810M -0.90($500M) - 0.90 ($100M) = $270M. Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x FV(sub) = 10% x $600M = $60M.

Dreary Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > Folks, this is work in progress, sorry. > Correction to partial goodwill: > > Finally I got a hold of this: > > Subsidiary’s market value (market cap for example) > MV(sub) = $900M. > FV (net assets) = $600M. > BV (net assets) =$500M. > > Parent buys 90% of sub and pays $810M (90% of > MV(sub). > > Full goodwill: MV(sub) - FV(sub) = $900M - $600M = > $300M. > Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x > MV(sub) = 10% x $900M = $90M. > > Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% x BV(sub) - > 90% x = $810M -0.90($500M) - 0.90 ($100M) = > $270M. > Minority Interest in Equity section = 10% x > FV(sub) = 10% x $600M = $60M. Looks good to me.

yeah, I’m fairly confident this is correct, and this took me a bit to piece together.

Dreary, thanks for putting it together. Got a question on the partial goodwill you had it Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% x BV(sub) - 90% x [FV(sub) - BV(sub)] = $810M -0.90($500M) - 0.90 ($100M) = $270M. Why did you have this part “90% x BV(sub) - 90% x [FV(sub) - BV(sub)]” Instead of just 90% (FV of Sub)? As it ends up to be the same number (540).

Not sure if it’s always the same. Usually, I’ve seen it done like this: Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% x BV(sub) - 90% x [FV(PP&E) - BV(PP&E)] …where you they look at PP&E only…so, if you consider the change in all identifiable assets (not just PP&E), then I guess you can just use Partial Goodwill: Purchase price - 90% FV(sub)