Is it always the case
(Pre tax net income needed)/ (Investable Asset) ?
Then
PUZZLE time!!!
It’s not always the case, unless the case specially states otherwise.
ok, I should say 80% case…
Lol, puzzle time…
watch out for key words
Nominal/Real
Pre-Tax/After-Tax return
in the first year of retirement = (Expense - Income) / Net Investable Assets
over time (in so many years)(use the Calc to obtain I/Y)
cpk123 or magician,
I recall an IPS question from a prep provider. There was a future expected payment (for a college or another important thing). I calculated the present value, and subtract it from the investment base.
Well, the answer didn’t do that. They just mentioned the future payment under Liquidity.
I still feel that the right approach is to subtract PV of future cash outflows (unless they’re unrealistic or not mandatory).
Am I right?
My cable bill of 89.99 is due in 45 days, do I take the PV of that to determine how much I owe?
^ outflows in the current year are easy. just subtract them from inflows. The issue is with outflows in few years , eg tuition of 80 K in 5 years.
Added:
Recurring outflows: subtract from inflows
One time outflows: subtract from investment base
Liquidity is a short-term issue, <1-year. Emergency reserve is an on-going cash buffer (similar to liquidity) Both are kept in safe, short term liquid “cash-like” assets. Sometimes removed completly from the investable asset base.
If the outflow is in a few years then the IPS has a multi-stage timeframe. First stage would be setup the portfolio to satisfy the liability due in a few years, you would not put this $ amount of this stage into the liquidity class as you would be sacrificing yield for saftey (liquidity) which isn’t necessary.
Appreciated. Two follow up quesions:
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If the question do not specify, for example, 2012 AM - Calcualte the required annual return, we should treat it as real required return?
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over time (in so many years)(use the Calc to obtain I/Y) -> the number is real required return?
I/Y number should be real rate.