Hi all, I understand the interpretation of IRR on page 219 of Reading 6, Vol 1. However, it says this on the 5th line in the first paragraph (after the example) - " If we subtract a capital charge of Y270,570,310 (the amount of a 5-year annuity having a PV of Y1,000 million at 11%)…" How did it arrived at the figure of Y270,570,310? Is it using FV = A [(1- (1 + R)^n) / r] ? if so i cannot get it to the Y270,570,310 having A = Y1,000 million (as I’m thinking you’d want the FV of the capital charge???) Please help, trying to digest this bit

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Terminology based on TI BA II Plus calc: Do PV = -1000 N=5 I/Y=11 CPT PMT Gives you 270.570310

hello,

thank you so much for the explanation.

There’s another example in very next section (table 3) where two projects are compared.

I would like to understand how a crossover discount rate was calculated for following note #6:

Best,

Gaurav

Take the difference in the project cash flows, say cashflow of project A minus cashflow of project D:

T = 0: -10,000 - (-10,000) = 0

T = 1: 15,000 - 0 = 15,000

T = 2: 0 - 0 = 0

T = 3: 0 - 21,200 = -21,200

Calculate the IRR of the difference in the cash flows and you will get the crossover rate.

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