Is any violation automatic violation of I(A)?

According to Schweser practice exams, any violation of a standard is automatically a violation of Standard I (A), Knowledge of the Law, since the member knowingly violated the code. Can any of you guys confirm this? Thanks!

trick question, there is no law http://www.funnyjunk.com/funny_pictures/64305/trick+question/

^ err… dont get the joke? but yeah i’d like to know too…

Thats a red herring