At first I was also confused but a simple recalculation of spot rates (needed for arbitrage-free price) is all one need to check what CFA institute is saying.
Consider a 4 period scenario where par rate for each of the 4 year is 4%. i.e
r(1) = 4%, r(2) = 4%, r(3) = 4% and r(4) = 4%. Since all par rates are same so the spot rate is also same i.e
z(1) = 4%, z(2) = 4%, z(3) = 4% and z(4) = 4%.
So a 4% coupon paying bond with 4 year maturity using above spot rates will come out to be $100. To be precise the PV for each casflow will be PV(1) = $3.84615, PV(2) = $3.69822, PV(3) = $3.55599 and PV(4) = $88.89964
Now comes the interesting part. Lets say we change the par rate for 2 year (key rate) and leaving rest all par rate same. say r(2) is now 10%. So we have
r(1) = 4%, r(2) = 10%, r(3) = 4% and r(4) = 4%.
if you recalculate spot rate (needed to price bond) they will come out
z(1) = 4%, z(2) = 10.31869%, z(3) = 3.84612% and z(4) = 3.88460%
Now same 4% coupon paying bond with 4 year maturity using new spot rates will still come out to be $100. To be precise the PV for each casflow will be PV(1) = $3.84615, PV(2) = $3.28671, PV(3) = $3.57182 and PV(4) = $89.29531. Just add them, it will be $99.99999 (approx $100)
Now as CFA book says, just change maturity matching rate so new par rate would have only 4’th year rate changed and rest 3 year will be same so r(1) = 4%, r(2) = 4%, r(3) = 4% and r(4) = 10%. Now calculate new spot rate. They will be below
z(1) = 4%,z(2) = 4%, z(3) = 4% and z(4) = 11.08%
Now same 4% coupon paying bond with 4 year maturity using new spot rates will come out to be $ 79.41124. To be precise the PV for each casflow will be PV(1) = $3.84615, PV(2) = $3.28671, PV(3) = $3.57182 and PV(4) = $68.31088
Hope this will clarify for current and future level 2 guys 