Hi All,
Just a quick question, it is said in the textbook that
“a deep out-of-the money option has higher leverage than a deep-in-the money option, but the delta of the former is less than that of the latter”
Why is this?
Assume for a call option, deep in the money means the leverage of call option is very high.Isn’t it?
Leverage= P (bond)/ P (Option), right?