I am wondering why the depreciation from previous year’s capitalization of interest costs are added instead of subtracted from EBIT.
Reading 21, Example 3.
$475 depreciation is added to EBIT to calculate the interest coverage ratio.When the depreciation is present, EBIT should be reduced. Can’t understand this.
If the Capitalization had not happened - depreciation would have been 475 less?
So you actual EBIT would have been 475 higher
and Interest expense would have been higher as well…
So true Int Cov Ratio = EBIT / Int --> will now be properly reflected after making the above adjustments. This will also make two companies one that capitalized interest vs. another one that did not - now comparable.