For Macroeconomic Model Estimates it’s stated that “Such models may be more reliable when public equities represent a relatively large share of the economy, as in many developed markets.”
I was wondering what constitutes ‘a relatively large share’?
For Macroeconomic Model Estimates it’s stated that “Such models may be more reliable when public equities represent a relatively large share of the economy, as in many developed markets.”
I was wondering what constitutes ‘a relatively large share’?
Common sense. There are more public cos in the econ as compared to private cos, or public cos drive the economy majorly. The number of public cos may not be important, their market share is important.