Managing balance sheet exposure: current vs temporal

Why is it that the book and other study materials say that it is easier to manage exposure to translation gain/losses more easily in temporal method than current method. Why does eliminating balance sheet exposure require zero stockholders’ equity.

In temporal method apparently the parent company can either selling foreign currency or reduce equity and increase liabilities. Why can’t the parent do this in current method?

I guess under Current Rate method your equity exposure is net asset while under Temporal method it is usually net monetary liability. It is easier to reduce debts using cash than selling assets to reduce liability in general.

Under the current method, your equity is your exposure for that currency, so you need to eliminate it.

Under the temportal method, you can reduce your exposure through monetary assets/liabilities.