So an important concept in econ is marking to market forwards on currency. Also in derivatives is valuing currency forwards.
So in the econ section,
Vt = (Ft-F0) / (1+r)
the value is the difference in the new forward and the original forward discounted back by the domestic rate. Makes sense…
In the derivatives section,
Vt = S0/(1+rf) - F0/(1+r)
the value is the difference in the spot rate discounted by the foreign rate and the forward rate discounted by the domestic rate. Also makes sense.
So a question from Schweser gives the following
current USD/EUR spot = 1.3110 - 14
30-day forward = +3.18/+3.38
30-day USD rate = 0.21%
30-day EUR rate = 0.90%
Original forward all-in rate = 1.3912 USD/EUR
The two methods listed above give slightly different answers and this question wants the reader to use the first. Is there a rhyme/reason to which one to use when valuing a forward? Shouldn’t both yield the same values? In questions in the past, they have but not this one. Is this question just poorly constructed? (i.e. is there an arbitrage? Is seems like the forward rate violates covered interest parity…)