Hi, I don’t quite understand the first 2 assumptions of Markowitz’s model. "• Returns distribution. Investors look at each investment opportunity as a probability distribution of expected returns over a given investment horizon. • Utility maximization. Investors maximize their expected utility over a given investment horizon, and their indifference curves exhibit diminishing marginal utility of wealth (i.e., they are convex). " I haven’t done quant yet so that may be a reason as to why but I’d like some help on this…Thnx.

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Thanks a ton daj…missed the reply earlier. Cheers, Nash