MIN value of calls

If the stock’s price is at 50, and there is a call with a strike price of 40…and risk-free rate is given…then the MIN value of a call comes out to be more than 10, more than the amount it is in the money…why? is it because you can wait to exercise a call until expiration? so exercising the call at 40 in the future is the same as needing to pay less than 40 today?

just trying to conceptualize why it comes out greater than the ten bucks the call is in the money

thanks as always

Since you will be paying 40 in future so you ought to substract the pv of 40 from 50.