Can someone explain how the minority interests are calculated per US GAAP? refer to reading 21 (6.5.4 , Page 39) . I understood the B.Sheet part which is lower than IFRS part (Since at BV) however on I/C statement it is higher ($ 9800) than IFRS hwich makes sense since I/C itself is higher.However the exact value calculation is whats driving me crazy, I am assumsing that on IFRS it is 8600 (Since 20% of OP. I/C) but here it is (22.17%) of OP.I/C? Not sure what am I missing…
Here is my take on that table: http://www.analystforum.com/phorums/read.php?12,903420,903946#msg-903946
Map I thanks for prompt reply on this… Your explaination is logical …I was just wondering in practice if we prepare the statements per GAAP and have OP. I/C of 44200 ; how do we come up with 9800? We wont have IFRS reference values then. Please clarify Thanks
There is no explanation in that example for the calculus of depreciation. You would need to know that to find exactly what is the charge for depreciation.
Map I thanks for ur help…