Okay I get it, you want to make a very hard question to piss off us. but why don’t you do it the right way?
I am not happy with the way the evaluate they adjust the Capital lease into the long term debt.
you can easily figure out the real value of PV of future obligations since :
operating lease expense is given and it’s : 126
you know that as at december 2010 you PV of future obligation is : 760.4
since you know that oprating lease is paid a begining of period you can derive the REAL VALUE as at december 2009 : 760 /1.06 + 126 = 842.98
they use 606… 606 make no fuc**** sense since you’re obligation will be obviously higher…
anyone have a opnion on this? I’m tired of writing to the CFA and getting no response.