Fixed income CFA Q-bank question
I thought Money duration and PV01 is the same.
Money duration : Market value * Modified duration /100
PV01 = BPV = PVBP : Market value * Modified duration /10,000
In this question, if you calculate money duration, the asset and the liability have the same money duration. But as you can see in the table, their PV01 do not match.
I can’t understand what’s happening here…
Is my understanding of above two concepts are wrong?