Mortality Probability Model

Why do we use the risk free rate to discount cash flows using this model?? and not the risk based on asset returns?

Again CFAI provides the answer

cpk123… always there to help:) thanks

(1+Nominal risk free rate) / (1+inflation rate) - 1 = Real risk free rate.

Sometime in the question, real risk free rate is not direclty given. It is good to know how it is calculated.