Hi - just reading through this topic and got a question that just seems to be uncovered (or hopefully not to be tested).
In a currency translation adj, say a US company paid an excess EURO amount over fair value of net identifiable asset of a EUR company that gave birth to goodwill in the consolidated statements and this goodwill has been converted to USD (presumably at the FX rate when goodwill arose). Next year when rolling up the assets of the subsidiary for consolidation (and assuming a NON substantial decrease in FX rate has occured), will the goodwill be remeasured at the new rate or will it remain the same? I am not even sure if this is a viable issue but this is confusing me…